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English Language Quiz 40 for IBPS PO

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Direction (1-10) : In the following passage, some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks wit h appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningfully :
A Publication house was founded in 1997, in Bangalore city at Pennya as a partnership between Riyaz Khan and Dr. Hussain. Riyaz Khan served as secretary-treasurer of the publication house and was very successful managing the business side of the operation. Dr. Hussain an illustrator who used a significant amount inheritance to 1 in the annually edition, served as its publisher. Riyaz khan created the first competitive Book with solved papers; he later started a batch for civil services entrance exams. Dr. Riyaz khan took advantage of a  2  new printing process using new technology, 3  improved the reproduction of his illustrations and artwork. This  4  helped because his book for competitive exams faced  5  competitions from the best-selling books, which were already established and successful. Then ashfaqulhaq was brought  6 as first literary editor; the recent BHU graduate was a founder of the Annual magazine of the  university.The motto  of the first issue of this book was: “While there’s Knowledge, there’s selection.”The book set  7  its principles and policies to its readers. The book was a success and soon attracted the industry’s leading contributors. Three years after the competitive book was founded, the Delhi native sold book for the competitive exam his first  8  for Rs.20. Encouraged by a publisher who was also an artist, R. Siddiquee was joined in publication house early days. Attracted a/an  9 literary  10 too: Industries leading writers and some others, all wrote for the competitive book around the start of the publication.

1. 1) feverish 2) rhetoric 3) devolve 4) eloquent 5) invest

2. 1) faux 2) burgeon 3) revolutionary 4) preponderance 5) accord

3. 1) partial 2) which 3) enjoin 4) dousing 5) progeny

4. 1) edge 2) quip 3) proscribe 4) earshot 5) causative

5. 1) errant 2) imperceptible 3) incongruous 4) deplete 5) stiff

6. 1) up 2) on 3) off 4) back 5) about

7. 1) about 2) free 3) menu 4) forth 5) aside

8. 1) draped 2) wallowing 3) contribution 4) guileless 5) impasse

9. 1) palliate 2) raconteur 3) impressive 4) flagrant 5) quantum

10. 1) purport 2) roster 3) ex gratia 4) impede 5) vicinity

 

Answers :-

 

1.  5  ,  2.  3   ,  3. 2  ,  4. 1   ,  5.  5   ,  6.  2   ,  7.  4   ,  8.  3   ,  9. 3  ,  10. 2

English Language Quiz 39 for IBPS PO

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Direction (1-5)each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

1. Most of the large companies are improving the export business processes by ___ ___ their years of experience.
1) flounder, to 2) leveraging, on 3) implementing, in 4) prescribing, of 5) revolting, in

2. His company is characterized by the wise utilization of labour for the commodity production and the advantage lies in the fact that is consumption of ____ labourers ____ are not qualified to work for the large scale industries and thus reducing unemployment and poverty in the country as well.
1) sceptic, they 2) titillate, that 3) ample, who 4) defuse, all 5) amoral, some

3. How can my friend be ____ living ____ two loud–crazy roommates ?
1) scads, among 2) chunk, amongst 3) goodly, along 4) sturdy, have 5) complacent, with

4. Sushant told stories about independence ___ a historian, even ___ a few laughs from members of the crowd.
1) like, illiberal 2) as if, appealing 3) being,for 4) as, eliciting 5) allied, for

5. Some people have a very aggressive and egoist nature and they are absolutely ___ by the other people for ___ reasons.
1) refreshed, several 2) unalike, without 3) loved, indefinite 4) loathed, obvious 5) remarked, new

Direction (6 – 10) : In each of the following questions four words are given, of which two words are most nearly the same or opposite in meaning. Find the two words which are most nearly the same or opposite in meaning and indicate the number of the correct letter combination :

6. A) Transient B) Imagine C) Envisage D) Pioneer
1) C – D 2) D – A 3) B – D 4) C – B 5) A – B

7. A) Trifle B) Lot C) Real D) Parcel
1) B – A 2) A – C 3) C – B 4) A – D 5) C – D

 

8. A) Tract B) Lopsided C) Triviality D) Leaning
1) A – D 2) C – A 3) D – B 4) B – C 5) A – C

9. A) Proven B) Appealing C) Moot D) Enclosing
1) C – A 2) B – C 3) D – C 4) B – A 5) B – D

10. A) Endorsed B) Ambushed C) Tormented D) Delighted
1) A – B 2) A – C 3) A – D 4) D – B 5) D – C

 

Answers :-

 

1.2  ,  2.3   ,  3.5   ,  4.  4  ,   5.4   ,  6.4, same   ,  7.1, opposite  ,    8.3, same   ,  9.1, opposite  ,  10. 5, opposite

English Language Quiz 38 for IBPS PO

Rankers Adda

Directions (Q. 1– 5): In each question below four words which are numbered 1) ,2) ,3) and 4) have been printed in bold, of which one word may be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. The nu mber of that word is the answer . If all the four words are correctly spelt , mark 5) , i.e. " No error " as the answer.

1. 1) Graphs A and B show that the referral / 2) rate of fear  agression  / 3) toward other species has  steadily/ 4) decreased over theyear. / 5)  No error.

2. 1) Mohit divorced Shreya without another word, and she curled onto/ 2) her side, weeping not only for the  bizzare/ 3) world she'd entered but from the realization/ 4) she'd never,  ever, ever return to hers. / 5)  No error.

3. 1) They had been engaged/ 2) a week and a half, and his  return to/ 3) work was  looming/ 4) in the  immidiatefuture. / 5)  No error.

4. 1) Meera couldn't win the argument/ 2)  any/ 3) other way, so she had  resorted/ 4) to her  irresistablecharm. / 5)  No error

5. 1) Our college team has been  subjected/ 2) to the biggest  propoganda/ 3)  offensive/ 4) that the college students have everknown. /5)  No error.

Directions (Q. 6 –10):  Rearrange the following seven sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E), (F) and (G) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below.
A)But what is moderation ?
B)But for some of my friends healthy diet means eating less than they do now.

C)My mother often think of balance diet for me as an all or nothing proposition, but a key elements for any balance diet is moderation.
D)The really depends on me and my overall eating habits.
E)The goal of healthy eating is to develop a diet that I can maintain for life, not just a few weeks or months, or until I've
hit my ideal weight.
F)How much is a moderate amount ?
G)So I try to think of it in terms of healthy diet.

6. Which of the following would be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
1) E 2) C 3) G 4) D 5) B

7. Which of the following would be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
1) C 2) A 3) F 4) B 5) G

8. Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
1) F 2) C 3) E 4) D 5) G

9. Which of the following would be the LAST sentence after rearrangement ?
1) A 2) D 3) E 4) B 5) G

10. Which of the following would be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?
1) D 2) C 3) A 4) D 5) F

 

Answers :-

1.  2;  ‘agression’  is  wrong  word  the  correct  spelling  is ‘aggression’.

2.  2; ‘bizzare’ is wrong word the correct spelling is ‘bizarre’.
3.  4; ‘immidiate’  is  wrong  word  the  correct  spelling  is ‘immediate’.
4.  4; ‘irresistable’  is  wrong  word  the  correct  spelling ‘irresistible’.
5.  2; ‘propoganda’  is  wrong  word  the  correct  spelling ‘propaganda’.

(6 –10) C A F D E G B
6.  1 ,   7.  3 ,   8.  2 ,   9.  4 ,   10.  1

English Language Quiz 37 for IBPS PO

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Direction (Q. 1 - 10) :  Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
India, known for its rich heritage of biological diversity, has so far documented over 91,200 specie s of animals and 45,500 species of plants in its ten bio-geographic regions. Besides, it is recognized as one of the eight V avilovian centres of origin and diversity of crop plants, having more than 300 wild ancestors and close relatives of cultivated plants, which are still evolving under natural conditions. India is also a vast  repository of Traditional Knowledge (TK) associated with biological resources. India ranks among the top ten species-rich nations and shows high endemism.  India has four global biodiversity hot spots (Eastern Himalaya, Indo-Burma, Western Ghats and Sri Lanka, and Sunderland). The varied edaphic, climatic and topographic conditions and years of geological stability have resulted in a wide range of ecosystems and habitats such as forests, grasslands, wetlands, deserts, and coastal and marine ecosystem. Inventories of faunal diversity in India are being progressively updated and analysed with several new discoveries. So far, nearly 91,212 of faunal species (7.43% of the world’s faunal species) have been recorded in the country. Endemic rich Indian fauna is manifested most prominently in Amphibia (61.2%) and Reptilia (47%). Likewise, Indian fish fauna includes two endemic families and 127 monotypic genera. As per the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List (2008), India has 413 globally threatened faunal species, which is approximately 4.9% of the world’s total number of threatened faunal species. Continuous surveys and explorations have added new discoveries – 41 plant species in 2007 by Botanical Survey of India (BSI) alone. The unique features of the plant diversity, among others, include 60 monotypic  families and over 6000 endemic species. Recent estimates indicate the presence of over 256 globally threatened plant species in India. Likewise, India’s contribution to crop biodiversity has been impressive with repositories of over 50,000 varieties of rice, 5,000 of sorghum, 1,000 varieties of mango, etc. The National Gene bank, primarily responsible for ex-situ conservation of unique germ plasm on long-term basis, holds 3,66,933 unique accessions of plant genetic resources. India is also endowed with vast and diverse forms of domesticated animal genetic resources, e.g., cattle, buffalo, sheep, goat, pig, camel, horse, donkey, yak, duck, goose, quail, etc. Besides, a rich diversity of wild relatives of domesticated animals exists here. The molecular characterization has been undertaken so far only in a few animals such as cattle, sheep, pig and poultry, using internationally recommended DNA  markers. India, endowed with vast inland and marine bio resources, is the third largest producer of fish in the world. A database on 2,182 fishes found in Indian waters has been developed, which includes 327 fresh water species listed in IUCN threat categories and 192 endemic fishes. A macro level fish occurrence map of India has been prepared and DNA barcodes of 100 Indian marine fish species developed.
India’s rich wildlife bio resources also offer numerous opportunities for ensuring livelihood security and development of wildlife based small enterprises. Nevada Wildlife Action Plan (NWAP) duly recognizes the importance of people’s support for wildlife conservation and calls for promoting ecotourism that primarily involves and benefits local communities. In this context, successes in implementing community oriented wildlife based tourism in states like Madhya Pradesh, Kerala, Himachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Jammu & Kashmir, Uttarakhand, etc., is  noteworthy. Similarly, National Commission on Agriculture, Tribal Co-operative Marketing Development Federation, Girijan Co-operative Corporation in Andhra Pradesh, Adivasi Multipurpose Societies has significantly contributed in promoting and harnessing the economic potential of NTFPs and improvement in the economic status of poor NTFP collectors.

 

1. Which among the following is the closest to the meaning of 'Biodiversity' ?
1) A scientific term which is used to describe the variety of life, the sum total of the Earth's living resources.
2) Its only living organisms of plant species.
3) It's related to some level of material wealth.
4) All of the above 5) None of these

2. What actions should be taken to conserve biodiversity ?
1) Development schemes should be realigned to provide biodiversity related benefits.
2) There is need of sustainable utilisation of biodiversity resources.
3) Water supply should be increased.
4) Both 1 and 2
5) None of these

3. Which of the following is not a benefit of NWAP (Nevada Wild Life Action Plan) ?
1) Habitat to benefit local communities.
2) It is a progressive blue print for wildlife conservation.
3) It may benefit from a changing climate and cloud expands their range.

4) Both 1 and 2
5) None of these

4. Which components of biodiversity is most important ?
1) The relative abundance of comparatively limited set of natural resources.
2) Special habitats.
3) Tree and vegetation species composition.
4) Wildlife trees.
5) All of the above

5. Consider the following statements :
A) Biological diversity is the immense variety and richness of life on the earth.
B) The Nevada Wildlife Action Plan (NWAP) was a team effort of people in every sense. Which among the above statement is/are correct as per the passage ?
1) Only A 2) Only B 3) Either A or B 4) Both A and B 5) None of these

 

Direction (Q. 16 – 18) :  Choose the word which is most SIMILAR in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

6. Repository
1)  Genus 2)  Representative 3)  Drainage 4)  Edifice 5) Warehouse

7. Endowed
1)  Related 2)  Orphic 3)  Enriched 4)  Safe 5)  Supplied

8. Molecular
1)  Rather 2)  Graced 3)  Texture 4) Microscopic 5)  Vault

Direction (Q.9 –10) :  Choose the word which is most nearly the OPPOSITE in meaning as the word printed in bold as
used in the passage.

9. Noteworthy
1)  Unimportant 2)  Minimal 3)  Consequential 4)  Unspoiled 5)  Concerned

10. Harnessing
1)  Resources 2)  Releasing 3)  Noticeable 4)  Splash 5) Observable

 

Answers :-

 

1.1 ,   2.4 ,   3.4 ,   4.5,    5.4,    6.5 ,   7.3,    8.4 ,   9. 1 ,   10.2

English Language Quiz 36 for IBPS PO

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Directions (Q. 1– 10):Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Just before dusk, on the plains of India’s northern region, 30-year-old woman farmer Harsukh kaur sprinkles mustard oil, turmeric, and raw sugar inside a ten-inch circle traced in the rich soil. Hands clasped, head bowed, she prays for a bountiful supply of ground water. Then she cranks a wheezing diesel engine, lines up a drill over the offerings, and releases a lever that brings an iron cylinder crashing into the earth. Indeed, the ground here in India’s fertile breadbasket  is beginning to look like Swiss cheese. On either side of Kaur’s drill the calm beauty of emerald rice paddies belies a catastrophe brewing hundreds of feet beneath the surface. As the water table drops dangerously low, farmers are investing heavily - and often going into debt - to bore deeper wells and install more powerful pumps. A prayer might just be the best chance for survival. Her state has only 1.5 percent of India’s land, but its output of rice and wheat accounts for 50 percent of the grain the government purchases to feed more than 400 million poor Indians. Experts say the 375-foot-deep tube  well and 7.5-horsepower pump Kaur is installing for a farmer is at the eye of a storm that threatens India’s food security, environmental health, and economic progress. According to an expert on soil and water “We have depleted the ground water to such an extent that it is devastating the country,” Expert also estimates that the energy used to subsidize rice production in the region costs $381 million a year. He and other experts warn that, if left unchecked, future drilling will bleed state budgets, parch aquifers, and run farmers out of business.
The problem is not only that farmers are mining aquifers faster than they can be replenished. As water levels drop, pumps are also sapping an already fragile and overtaxed electricity grid. And because farmers in this state pay nothing for electricity, they run their pumps with abandon, which further depletes the water table. All these issues are interconnected. That’s exactly what Harsukh kaur hopes to do: get politicians, farmers, and bureaucrats to sign on to reforms that will save billions of dollars and reduce the amount of water pumped out of the ground. A pilot program for his nationwide scheme is expected to launch early this year. Farmers will receive new, efficient pumps with meters and prepaid electricity credits allowing them to draw roughly the same amount of water they use now and either pocket the savings if they pump less or pay to pump more. Utilities will be required to upgrade transmission lines to cut losses and improve service. The program comes at considerable cost but promises great savings. Unlike many experts who say the answer to India’s water and energy problems is  to charge  farmers the real cost of electricity,  But India’s power  sector loses as much as  $9 billion a year subsidizing farmers’ use of electric pumps. That’s half of what the country spends on health and twice what it spends on education. Thus it’s a classic example of bad economic policies having serious environmental consequences.

 

1. Indian northern agriculture is facing the serious problem of –––
1) Economic progress
2) Electricity
3) Water table drops
4) Rich soil
5) None of these

2. What are the undue advantages taken by the farmers as given in the passage ?
1) Unconscientious use of electricity.
2) The farmers who have availed of crop loan from the banks are not interested in returning of these loans.
3) There are many cases in which the farmers disposes of his surplus produce.
4) Rough use of water resources.
5) None of these

 

3. Which term is used to describe for "a temporary peaceful time of farmers" ?
1) Crank a wheezing diesel.
2) Catastrophe brewing.
3) The eye of a storm.
4) Swiss cheese
5) None of these

4. Which of the following statement is true as given in the passage?
1) Basic human work for tilling, harvesting and processing, together with rain-fed irrigation, none of which involve an
input from an external fuel source.
2) Agriculture is itself an energy conversion process.
3) Some farming generally relies on techniques to expand and maintain the lands.
4) All of the above.
5) None of these.

5. Which best describes a pilot program -1) It means a program to study the growth, cultivation or marketing of industrial or hemp.
2) It states that lack of cultivation of industrial hem under the laws of the state.
3) Fresh products were likely consumed relatively close to where they were produced.
4) Either 1 or 2.
5) None of these.

Direction (Q. 6 – 7) : Choose the word which is most SIMILAR in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the
passage.

6. Bleed
1) Guts 2) Dampen 3) Unproductive 4)  Enfeeble 5)  Spurt

7. Replenished
1)  Restored 2)  Dredge 3)  Eruption 4) Tenuous 5) Midsection

Direction (Q. 8 –10) :  Choose the word which is most nearly the OPPOSITE in meaning as the word printed in bold as
used in the passage.

8. Sprinkle
1)  Moisten 2)  Gather 3)  Paunch 4)  Miserable 5)  Discharge

9. Bountiful
1)  Impair 2)  Rush 3)  Meagre 4)  Subvert 5)  Spot

10. Sapping
1)  Providing 2)  Merely 3)  Crippling 4)  Strengthening 5) Out bursting

 

Answers :-

 

1.3 ,    2.1 ,      3.3,     4.5 ,    5.1 ,    6.5 ,    7.1 ,    8.2  ,     9.3 ,    10.4

Reasoning Ability Quiz 35 for IBPS PO

Rankers Adda

Directions (Q. 1 – 4): Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions :
India has the largest postal networks in the world with over 1.55 lakh post offices. Most of them in rural areas. The network
has grown seven fold since independence with the focus of this expansion primarily on rural areas, yet the growth in terms of
numbers and reach is slowing down.
A) Several new products and services like speed post, Internet banking for saving account, i– money and e–post have
added a contemporary resonance to the post office.
B) All the Government of India has announced that all post offices in the country will be modernised by using modern
technology as the post card still takes lots of time to deliver.
C) Post office has inaugurated its first ATM's in Chennai and by 2015 March the department will be opening 2800 more
such ATM's.
D) Government of India is thinking of giving license of Indian post for banking by which government can easily tapped the
customers in rural areas, which will need in financial inclusion.
E) People are neither interested in reading the letters nor they are interested in writing it. Even in the villages peoples are
beginning to find electronic means of interacting. More convenient and user friendly.

1. Which of the following among (A), (C), (D) and (E) may be a future course of action by the Indian Post ?
1) Both A and C 2) Both A and D 3) Both C and D 4) Only D 5) Only E

2. Which of the following among (B), (C), (D) and (E) may weaken the statement of preserving the Post Office?
1) Only B 2) Only E 3) Only D 4) Both D and E 5) Both C and E

3. Which of the following among (C), (D), (E) and (B) shows that Indian post will help the government in financial inclusion?
1) Only B 2) Only C 3) Both C and D 4) Only D 5) Both B and E

4. Which of the following among (A), (B), (C) and (D) shows sign of change and use of modern technology by the Indian Post.
1) Both A and C 2) Only B 3) Only C 4) Only D 5) None of these

5. The Delhi Airport Metro Express line has seen a 40 per cent more commuters ever since the DMRC took  over the operations of the airport line ? Which of the following can be a strong argument in the favour of DMRC ?
1) After the took over of the operations of the airport line, DMRC has put more hoardings and bill boards to make aware about this route to the people.
2) The traffic in this route is quite smooth and services are quite excellent compare to the other routes.
3) The fare are quite high as compared to the other routes.
4) Both A and B
5) None of these

Directions (Q. 6 – 10): In each of the questions given bellow, which one of the five answer figure on the right should come
after problem figures on the left, if sequence were continued ?

image

 

Answers :-

 

1.3;Indian government taking initiative in setting up the new post office ATM and giving bank license. Option E giving more focus to latest technology. Option A explains about the services by the Indian post.

 

2.2; People are neither interested in writing letter nor have much time in reading it. Option B explains about the cause of modernisation in post office. Option C and D talks about the expansion plan.

3.4; By setting a full fledged bank in the future. Option B explains about the cause of modernisation in the post office. Option C explains about the expansion plan. Option E gives more focus to latest technology.

4.1; A and C i–money, internet banking ATM, all are being used by the Indian post now a day. Other option (B, D) does not explain any use of modern technology by the Indian  post.

5.  3;

6.3; 1—> 2 —>3 (Follow sequence)
Similarly 4 —> 5 —> 6 (Follow sequence).
From step I to step II it changes diagonally the corner element in the first row and in the step III, first row changes itself. In the middle row, first and third element interchange itself and the middle number got squared. From step II to step III the first and the second row element interchange  diagonally. The  middle  element  changes itself. The first element and the third element interchange with its corresponding element. In the last row first and third element interchange with each other. While middle element remains same.

 

7.5; 1  —> 2 —> 3

4 —> 5 —> 6 (Same sequence in this series).
From first to second step all element are squared. In third row first and third elements are interchanging similarly follow  in  the  second  row  and  replaced  by  the  next alphabet. While the middle element replaced by the next alphabet. From second to third step in the first row all element are added by 1. Then, first and third elements interchange their position.

8.2;1 —> 2 —> 3  —> 4
The 1st and 3rd element moves 90º clockwise in every row. While the 2nd element in each row moves 90º anti clockwise direction . Figure 4 is the last step of the series. In 5th new figure comes and same sequence follows.

9.1; 1—> 2  —> 3  —> 4
In  fifth  new  figure  comes  and  same  sequence  get followed. From step I to step II and step II to step III upper corner elements change their position. Centre element is squared of the previous element. While the corner middle row elements are replaced by the next alphabet. Then, lower corner  row  elements  diagonally  interchange  with  the middle corner element in next step. Then, upper corner elements diagonally interchange their position with the middle row corner elements.

10.4; 1  —> 2  —> 3 (Sequence)
4 —> 5  —> 6 (Same sequence in this series) All  the  box  elements  are  squared  of  it  previous  step element. Then, In next step all the box elements diagonally interchange their position. And  from  step I to step II corner element have same position. While from step II to step III they diagonally interchange.

Reasoning Ability Quiz 34 for IBPS PO

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Directions (Q. 1 – 3) : Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions: There are fourteen friends in which seven of them are facing South and seven of them facing North. L, M, N, O, P, Q and R are sitting in a row facing South but not necessarily in the same order. T, V, D, W, A, B and C are friends sitting in a row facing North not necessarily in the same order. P is sitting third to the left of M and facing A. L is sitting at one end of row. The person who is sitting at one end of row is facing T. N is sitting third to the right of Q, who is facing B. V is sitting third left of A and facing M. C is sitting third right of W and facing R. T is sitting on the extreme left of  the row. O and Q are not the immediate neighbours.

1. Who are the person sitting in the middle of the row in both the rows ?
1) P and A 2) N and D 3) O and W 4) W and N 5) N and A

2. Who are the person sitting at the end of the row, facing North ?
1) C and V 2) B and T 3) C and T 4) A and T 5) V and B

3. Which of the following pair is correct ?
1) P – B 2) O – B 3) R – C 4) N – W 5) L – V

Directions (Q. 4 – 7): Read the information carefully and answer the following questions :
If A × B means A is the sister of B. If A + B means A is the mother of B.
If A – B means A is the brother of B. If A ÷ B means A is the father of B.

4. If M + N ÷ R – S, then M is S –
1) Sister 2) Grandfather 3) Grandmother 4) Father 5) None of these

5. If R × T ÷ P – S + N , then R is N's –
1) Great Aunt 2) Brother 3) Maternal Uncle 4) Mother 5) None of these

6. Which of the following shows that 'R' is the aunt of E ?
1) R – T + P ÷ S × E 2) R × T ÷ P × S – E 3) R ÷ T × P + S – E 4) R × T – P × S ÷ E 5) None of these

7. Which of the following shows that R is the grand father of E ?
1) R ÷ S × T – P ÷ E 2) R + S – T – P ÷ E 3) R × S – T + P ÷ E 4) R × S + T ÷ P – E 5) None of these


Directions (Q. 8 – 10): Read the information carefully and answer the following questions :

8. Eighteen passengers were killed and More then 145 injured when the Dina–Sawantwadi passenger train derailed outside a tunnel in Raigad district.
Courses of Action :
A) Medical teams should be dispatched to the sport and cranes were pressed into action to clear the debris.
B) A special helpline should be set up by the Konkan railway to help the passengers and on special team should be set up by the railway board, to conduct an enquiry.
C) Railway should divert all the trains running on this track for next 48 hrs.
1) Only A 2) Both B and C 3) Both A and C 4) All of the above 5) Both A and B

9. A section of auto–rickshaw drivers have decided to go on a symbolic one day strike which of the following assumptions is implicit in the above statement ? (An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted.)

1) The auto drivers are protesting against the Delhi Government's order issued last week making GPS  meters mandatory in all auto–rickshaws.
2) The transport department has stopped issuing fitness certificate to auto–rickshaws.
3) The strike will put daily commuters in deep problem in reaching to their destination.
4) Government will make a special arrangement on the roads, to overcome the strike.
5) Government will call the auto–rickshaw drivers for the solution of their problem.

Directions (Q. 10): Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions : India has the largest postal networks in the world with over 1.55 lakh post offices. Most of them in rural areas. The network has grown seven fold since independence with the focus of this expansion primarily on rural areas, yet the growth in terms of numbers and reach is slowing down.
A) Several new products and services like speed post, Internet banking for saving account, i– money and e–post have added a contemporary resonance to the post office.
B) All the Government of India has announced that all post offices in the country will be modernised by using modern technology as the post card still takes lots of time to deliver.
C) Post office has inaugurated its first ATM's in Chennai and by 2015 March the department will be opening 2800 more such ATM's.
D) Government of India is thinking of giving license of Indian post for banking by which government can easily tapped the customers in rural areas, which will need in financial inclusion.
E) People are neither interested in reading the letters nor they are interested in writing it. Even in the villages peoples are beginning to find electronic means of interacting. More convenient and user friendly.

10. Which of the following among (A), (B), (C) and (D) may be there as on behind the modernisation of Indian Post ?
1) Only B 2) Only C 3) Only D 4) Both B and C 5) Only A

 

Answers :-

 

1.  3;     2.  3;      3.  3;

4.3; M + N means M is mother of B ––––– (I)
N ÷ R means N is father of R ––––––––– (II)
R – S means R is brother of S –––––––– (III)
From  the  above  statement  it  is  clear  that  M  is  the
grandmother of S.

5. 1; R is N’s mother’s brother’s father’s sister.
= R in N’s mother’s father’s sister.
= R is N’s mother’s aunt.
= R is N’s great aunt.

6. 2; Given expression in the earlier question R × T ÷ P × S – E
Now know, R × T means R is the sister of T.
T ÷ P means T is the father of P.
P × S means P is the sister of S.
S – E means S is the brother of E.
So, it is clear that P, S and E’s father is T. Now since R is
sister of B, it means R is the aunt of E.

7. 1; R ÷ S means R is the father of S.
S × T means S is sister of T.
T – P means T is brother of P.
P ÷ E means P is the father of E.
From  the  above  statement  it  is  clear  that  R  is  the grandfather of E.


8.  4;    9.  1;

10.1; Letters takes lot of time in getting delivered from one place to another.
Option  C  talks  about  the  post  office  ATM  and  its expansion plan.
Option D talks about the new set up of post office i. e post office banks.
Option A explains about the new services launched by the Indian post.

Reasoning Ability Quiz 33 for IBPS PO

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Direction (Q. 1 – 3) : Each of the question below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions. Read both the statements and given answer :
1) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statements II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
2) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
3) If the data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
4) If the data even in both statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
5) If the data in both statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

1. M, N, O, P, Q, R and S are seven friends sitting in a straight line facing north. Who is sitting in the middle of the row ?
I) N is sitting second to the right of Q and third to the left of S. Who is sitting at one end of the row. O is sitting third right of Q.
II) M is sitting second right of R and third left of P. Q is sitting second left of N. O is sitting fourth right of R and is the neighbour of P.

2. What is the code for 'Hospital' in the given code language ?
I) In the code language "local brought to hospital" is coded as " ma, na, ta, re".
II) In the code language "hospital are safe place" is coded as "ra, ga, pa, ta".

3. Six friends R, M, N, B, C and O sitting in a circular table facing the centre. Who is sitting between M and O ?
I) R is sitting second left of C and M is sitting second right of O.
II) B is sitting third left of N. O is sitting third right of R and C is sitting second left of N.

Directions (Q. 4 – 8): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions : In a BIMSTEC summit Prime Minister of Bangladesh, India, Maldives, South Africa, China, Taiwan and Myanmaar are sitting around a circular table. Some of them are facing inside and some of them are facing outside  the centre. After the summit every Prime Minister is visiting to different countries, viz U.S.A, Russia, Kenya, Singapore, Japan,Sri Lanka and Italy. PM of India is sitting second to the right of Bangladeshi PM. PM of Maldives is sitting third to the right of Taiwan's PM and facing outside the centre. The PM who is going Singapore is sitting 3rd to the right of China's PM. The Bangladeshi PM is going to USA and facing outside the centre. PM of India is facing the centre and going to Russia. The PM sitting second to the left of Indian PM is facing the centre and going to Italy. PM of china is going to Japan. Myanmar Prime Minister is going to Italy. The Prime Minister who is sitting between Bangladeshi and Chinese Prime Minister is facing the centre and going to Sri Lanka.

4. Prime Minister of Taiwan is going to which country ?
1) Sri Lanka 2) USA 3) Russia 4) Kenya 5) Japan

5. Which Prime Minister is going to Kenya ?
1) India 2) Myanmar 3) Bangladesh 4) Maldives 5) China

6. What is the position of South African (S. A) Prime Minister with respect to Myanmar Prime Minister ?
1) Third to the left 2) Second to the right 3) Third to the right 4) Fourth to the right 5) None of these

7. Which of the following countries Prime Minister is facing inside the centre ?
1) India – S. A – Myanmar 2) Taiwan – India – China

3) Myanmar – Bangladesh – S. A 4) Maldives – Taiwan – India
5) Myanmar – India – Taiwan

8. Which of the following pair is correct ?
1) India – Russia 2) China – Japan 3) Maldives – Kenya 4) Bangladesh – USA 5) All of the above

Directions (Q. 9 – 10) : Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions: There are fourteen friends in which seven of them are facing South and seven of them facing North. L, M, N, O, P, Q and R are sitting in a row facing South but not necessarily in the same order. T, V, D, W, A, B and C are friends sitting in a row facing North not necessarily in the same order. P is sitting third to the left of M and facing A. L is sitting at one end of row. The person who is sitting at one end of row is facing T. N is sitting third to the right of Q, who is facing B. V is sitting third left of A and facing M. C is sitting third right of W and facing R. T is sitting on the extreme left of  the row. O and Q are not the immediate neighbours.

9. Who is the person facing N ?
1) D 2) W 3) V 4) T 5) A

10. How many person are sitting between L and Q ?
1) 6 2) 3 3) 5 4) 2 5) 4

 

Answers :-

 

image

 

(4 to 8)

image

 

 

4.  1;   5.  4;   6.3;   7.  5;   8.  5;

(9 to 10)

image

9.  1;   10.  5;

Reasoning Ability Quiz 32 for IBPS PO

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image

 

5. How many meaningful word can be formed with the letters R T S E I using each letter only once in each word ?
1) Three 2) One 3) Two 4) Five 5) Four

6. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word O V E R T U R N E D each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
1) Three 2) Six 3) Four 4) Seven 5) Five

7. Ravi started walking towards North. After walking a distance of 40 m. He turns towards left and walked 20 m. He then took a right turn and walked 50 m. He again took a right turn and walked 10 m. and stopped. How far and in which direction he is from starting point ? (Approximately)
1) 91 m., North – West 2) 92 m., South – East 3) 89 m., North – East 4) 90 m., South – West 5) 88 m., South

8. Each vowel in the letter E A R L I E R is substituted by the next alphabet and each consonant is substituted by the previous alphabet which alphabet will come in the middle of word after the new code ?
1) J 2) Q 3) F 4) K 5) None of these


9. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group which is the one that does not belong to thatgroup ?

1) TRUTH 2) VERACITY 3) HYPE 4) CANDOR 5) FACT

Direction (Q. 10 ) : Each of the question below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions. Read both the statements and given answer :
1) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statements II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
2) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
3) If the data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
4) If the data even in both statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
5) If the data in both statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

10.Six people Ramesh, Rahul, Gautam, Anand, Raj and Rakesh are sitting around a circular table. Four ofthem facing the centre and two of them facing outside the centre. What is the position of Anand with respect to Rakesh.
I) Raj is sitting third to the left of Rahul and who is facing the centre. Rakesh is sitting immediate left of Gautam. Anand is facing outside the centre and Rakesh is facing the centre. Gautam is facing outside the centre .
II) Rakesh is sitting second right of Rahul and who is facing the centre. Anand who is facing outside the centre sitting third left of Gautam. Raj is sitting third left of Rahul

 

Answers :-

image

image

image

9. 3; Except Hype all are the synonyms of TRUTH.


10. 5; From statement – I :

image

Reasoning Ability Quiz 31 for IBPS PO

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Direction (Q. 1–5): In each questions below are given three or four statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly

known facts. Give answer :
1) If only conclusion II follows. 2) If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
3) If both conclusion I and II follow. 4) If only conclusion I follows.
5) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.

1. Statements : Every doctor is MBBS. At least doctors are Phd. Each Phd is Scholars.
Conclusion: I. All MBBS being Phd is a possibility. II.Some doctors are Scholars.

(Q. 2 – 3) : Statements : Every people is social. A few people are smart. Every smart are intelligent. No people are fool.

 

2. Conclusion:- I.Some smart are social. II.Some smart are not fool.

3. Conclusion:- I.Some intelligent are not fool. II.No fool is a social.

4. Statements : Every cricketer are champions. Some cricketers are winner. No cricketer is loser.
Conclusion:- I.Some champions are not losers. II.Some champions are cricketers.

5. Statements :- Only people are kind. Some youth are faithful. Some youth are kind.
Conclusion:- I.All faithful being kind is a possibility. II.Some people are youth.


Directions (Q. 6-10): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions: A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
Input : shop 17 table 20 53 oven desk 39
Step I : 17 shop table 20 53 oven desk 39
Step II : 17 table shop 20 53 oven desk 39
Step III : 17 table 20 shop 53 oven desk 39
Step IV : 17 table 20 shop 39 53 oven desk
Step V : 17 table 20 shop 39 oven 53 desk
and Step Vis the last step of the rearrangement. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.

6. Input:89 bind 32 goal house 61 12 joy How many steps will be required to complete the arrangement?
1) Four 2) Five 3) Six 4) Seven 5) None of these

 

7. Step II of an input is: 15 yes 62 51 48 talk now gone Which of the following will be step VI ?

1) 15 yes 48 talk 51 now gone 62
2) 15 yes 48 talk 51 62 now gone
3) 15 yes 48 talk 51 now 62 gone
4) There will be no such step.
5) None of these

 

8. Step III of an input is : 21 victory 30 joint 64 47 all gone How many more steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?
1) Three 2) Four 3) Five 4) Six 5) None of these


9. Input:win 92 task 73 59 house range 34 Which of the following will be step IV of the above input?
1) 34 win 59 task 73 range 92 house
2) 34 win 92 59 task 73 house range
3) 34 win 92 task 73 59 house range
4) There will be no such step.
5) None of these


10. Input:save 21 43 78 them early 36 for Which of the following steps will be the last but one?
1) VI 2) VII 3) VIII 4) V 5) None of these

 

Answers :-

 

1. 3; Every doctor is MBBS (A) +At least doctor are phd (I) = A+I= No conclusion. But possibility exist is I. hence conclusion I follows. Again, At least doctors are phd (I) + Each phd is scholars (A) = I+A=I = some doctor are scholars, hence conclusion II follows.

2. 1; Every people is social –> conclusion –>  some social are people (I) + A few people are smart (I)=I+I= No conclusion, Hence conclusion I does not follow. Again, A few people are smart  conclusion –>  some smart are people (I) + No people are fool (E)=I+E=O= some smart are not fool. hence conclusion II follows.

3. 4; A few people are smart (I) + Every smart are intelligent (A)=I+A= I= some people are intelligent –>  conclusion –> some intelligent are people (A) + No people are fool (E) = I + E = O = some intelligent are not fool. Hence conclusion I follows. Again, Every people is a social–> conclusion–> some social are people (I) + No people are fool (E) = I + E = 0 = some social are not fool. Hence conclusion II does not follow.

4. 3; Every cricketer are champions (A) –> conclusion –> some champions are cricketer (I). Hence conclusion II follows, Again,some champions are cricketer (I) + No cricketer is a looser (E) = I + E = O = some champions are not looser, Hence conclusion I follows.


5. 4; There is no negative statement, hence conclusion
I follows, Again, only people are kind (A) + some kind are youth (conversion of third statement, = A = I = No conclusion, Hence conclusion II does not follows. Again, From I and III – Only people are kind (A) + Some youth  are  kind  (I)  = A  +  I  =  No  conclusion.  Hence, conclusion II does not follow.

 

(Q.6 –10):In the first step, the smallest number comes to
the leftmost position and the remaining line shifts rightward.
In the next step, the word that comes last in the alphabetical
order  occupies  the  second  position  from  the  left  and  the
remaining line shifts rightward. This goes on alternately till
all the numbers are arranged in ascending order and all the
words in reverse alphabetical order at alternate positions.

6.3;
Input:89 bind 32 goal house 61 12 joy
Step I:12 89 bind 32 goal house 61 joy
Step II:12 joy 89 bind 32 goal house 61
Step III:12 joy 32 89 bind goal house 61
Step IV: 12 joy 32 house 89 bind goal 61
Step V:12 joy 32 house 61 89 bind goal
Step VI:12 joy 32 house 61 goal 89 bind

7.3;
Step II: 15 yes 62 51 48 talk now gone
Step III:15 yes 48 62 51 talk now gone
Step IV:15 yes 48 talk 62 51 now gone
Step V:15 yes 48 talk 51 62 now gone
Step VI :15 yes 48 talk 51 now 62 gone

8.5;
Step III:21 victory 30 joint 64 47 all gone
Step IV:21 victory 30 joint 47 64 all gone
Step V:21 victory 30 joint 47 gone 64 all
5 - 3 = 2 more steps will be required.

9.5;
Input:win 92 task 73 59 house range 34
Step I:34 win 92 task 73 59 house range
Step II:34 win 59 92 task 73 house range
Step III:34 win 59 task 92 73 house range
Step IV:34 win 59 task 73 92 house range

10.5;  Input:  save 21 43 78 them early 36 for
Step I:21 save 43 78 them early 36 for
Step II:21 them save 43 78 early 36 for
Step III:21 them 36 save 43 78 early for
Step IV:21 them 36 save 43 for 78 early
Hence step III will be the last but one.

Quantitative Aptitude Quiz 40 for IBPS PO

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Direction (Q. 1 -2) : Read the following Pi–chart carefully and answer the questions that follows :
Percentage distribution of the number of Mobile Phones sold by the shopkeepers during seven months :

image

1. What is the respective ratio of  Mobile phones sold  by company A and company B in September together sold by company B and C in November together ?
1) 26 : 25 2) 36 : 25 3) 25 : 36 4) 25 : 26 5) None of these

 

2. What is number of total Mobile Phones sold by company A , in August, company B in September and company C in December together ?
1) 7108 2) 7208 3) 7306 4) 7308 5) None of these

 

Direction (Q. 3 -7) : Read the given information carefully to answer these questions :
In G–20 summit, there are total 400 delegates, who can speak one, two or three languages out of English, French and Hindi. Out of them 50% delegates speak English, 40% speak French and 45 % speak Hindi, 15 % of the English speaking people can speak all the three languages. The people who speak Hindi and French but not English is 40 % of the number of English speaking people. 40 people can speak English and French but not Hindi. The number of people who speak English and Hindi but not French is 2 times the number of people who can speak all the three languages

 

3. How many people speak only English ?
1) 65 2) 70 3) 72 4) 74 5) None of these

4. How many people can speak exactly any, two language ?
1) 190 2) 185 3) 195 4) 180 5) None of these

5. How many people can speak at least two languages ?
1) 230 2) 210 3) 205 4) 225 5) None of these

6. The number of people who speak all the three languages is what percent of the number of people who speak only one
language?

image

 

7. What is the ratio of the number of people who speak all the three languages to people who speak only one language ?
1)  3 : 1 2)  1 : 3 3)  1 : 5 4)  5 : 1 5) None of these

 

Direction (Q. 8 -9) : Study the given graph carefully to answer the questions that follow :
Number of days taken by A, B and C to complete one piece each of four different items :

image

image

image

10.

A man travelled total 2000 km distance in 18 hrs. Some part of the journey travelled by him by bus at average speed 72 km/ hr. and rest part of the journey by train at 160 km/hr. Find the distance travelled by him by the train ?
1)  1370 km. 2)  1280 km. 3)  1380 km. 4)  1375 km. 5) None of these

 

Answers :-

 

1. 2,

image

4.2, 

5.2, 

6.1 ,

7.2; 30 : 90 = 1 : 3

image

Quantitative Aptitude Quiz 39 for IBPS PO

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Direction (Q. 1 -6) : Read the following line–graph carefully and answer the questions that follow :
Percentage profit earned by three – shopkeepers in six– different years are given :

image

1. If shopkeeper B sold 450 tubs in 2010 at `21 per tub, what is the cost price of all tubs together during the same years ?
1)  `7650 2)  `6750 3)  `6175 4)  `6375 5) None of these

2. If amount of profit earned by shopkeeper C in 2013 is  `90,000, what was the selling price of all tubs in that year ?
1)  `398500 2)  `395000 3)  `390000 4)  `397500 5) None of these

3. What is the per cent rise in percentage profit of shopkeeper A in 2011 from the previous year ?
1)  20 % 2) 45 % 3) 48 % 4) 50 % 5) None of these

4. What is approximately the average percentage profit of shopkeeper C in all the years together ?
1) 20 % 2) 27 % 3) 29 % 4) 40 % 5) None of these

5. What is the ratio of the profit earned by the shopkeeper A in 2010 to profit earned by shopkeeper C in 2012 ?
1) Data inadequate 2) 3 : 4 3) 4 : 3 4) 6 : 5 5) None of these

6. Which of the following statement is definitely true ?
1) The amount of profit earned by shopkeeper B in the year 2010 and 2011 are the same.
2) Shopkeeper A earned the highest amount of the profit in 2010.
3) The amount of profit earned by shopkeeper A and C are the same in 2012.
4) All of the above are true. 5) None of these

Direction (Q. 7 -10) : Read the following Pi–chart carefully and answer the questions that follows :
Percentage distribution of the number of Mobile Phones sold by the shopkeepers during seven months :

image

7. What is the ratio of the number of Mobile Phones sold by company A in December to those sold in November by the company B ?
1) 16 : 35 2) 7 : 8 3) 18 : 7 4) 9 : 7 5) None of these

8. If 75 % of the Mobile Phones sold by company B in September at discount rate, how many Mobile Phones sold without discount  ?
1) 740 2) 640 3) 630 4) 540 5) None of these

9. If shopkeeper earned a profit of `220 on each Mobile Phone sold by company C in October. What was his total profit earned by the same company in same months ?
1)  `825000 2)  `835000 3)  `845000 4)  `815750 5) None of these

10. What is the total number of Mobile Phones sold by all companies in August and November together ?
1) 12500 2) 13000 3) 12000 4) 12600 5) None of these

 

Answers :-

image

Quantitative Aptitude Quiz 38 for IBPS PO

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1. If failed students in college B is 9000 and failed students in college A is 15000, what is the total number of passed Girls in college A and B together ?
1) 28500 2) 33000 3) 33500 4) 31500 5) None of these

2. If total number of students in college D is 6000, then what is the total number of failed girls in college E ?
1) 17800 2) 15200 3) Data Inadequate 4) 16500 5) None of these

image

9. Out of total 600 students, how many students did not prefer History or Civics ?
Break up of students having preference for each subject :

image

1)  380           2)  370               3)  390             4)  385                 5) None of these

10. A stream is running 2 km/hr. a boat goes 10 km upstream and back again the starting point in 55 minute. Find the speed of the boat in still water ?
1) 24 km/hr. 2)  23 km/hr. 3) 22 km/hr. 4)  25 km/hr. 5) None of these

 

Answers :-

 

image

6.5,

image

8.3;

image

Quantitative Aptitude Quiz 37 for IBPS PO

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Directions (Q. 1 – 5): Read the following table carefully and answer the questions that follow :
Number of Candidates who applied in 4 disciplines in different years :

image

1. What is the respective ratio of number of selected candidates in History discipline in group II in year 2010 and number of selected candidates in same group in Commerce discipline in same year ?
1) 135 : 153 2) 153 : 125 3) 135 : 143 4) 143 : 125 5) None of these

2. What is the difference between selected candidates group I and group II in Science discipline in 2012 ?
1) 17 2) 37 3) 45 4) 27 5) None of these

3. The number of selected candidates in group II in other discipline in 2013 is approximately what percent of the number of selected candidates in group I in same year in same discipline ?
1) 53 % 2) 63 % 3) 43 % 4) 65 % 5) None of these

4. What is the ratio of selected candidates in group I in discipline Commerce, Science and History together in 2010, to selected candidates in group II in discipline Science, History and other together in the year 2011 ?
1)  3255 : 3002 2)  3265 : 3462 3)  3275 : 3327 4)  3175 : 3202 5) None of these

5. What is the ratio of candidates not selected in group II in Commerce discipline in 2010 to selected candidates in the same group in same discipline in same year ?
1)  51 : 39 2)  61 : 39 3)  71 : 39 4)  39 : 61 5) None of these

 

Directions (Q. 6 – 10): Read the following graph carefully and answer the questions given below :
Percentage of failed student in different colleges :

 

image

6. If total number of students passed in college D is 3600, find the number of Girls failed in same college ?
1) 1900 2)  900 3)  2900 4)  850 5) None of these

7. If total number of students in college F is 8000, what will be the number of passed Boys in college F ?
1)  2600 2)  1600 3)  3600 4)  3560 5) None of these

8. If total number of students in college A and C is 4200, how many students failed in both the college together ?
1)  1450 2)  2750 3)  2250 4) Can't be determined 5) None of these

9. If number of failed students in college E is 5400, find total number of students in college E ?
1) 12500 2) 12400 3) 12000 4) 12300 5) None of these

10. If number of failed students in college C is 3600, then what will be the number of failed Girls in college C ?
1) 1780 2) 1580 3) 1880 4) 1680 5) None of these

 

Answers :-

 

image

8.4

image

10.4; Required No failed girl in College C = 1680

Quantitative Aptitude Quiz 36 for IBPS PO

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Directions (Q. 1 – 8): Read the table carefully and answer the questions that follows :
Percentage increase in production of 6 companies in different years :

image

 

1. In production of Infosys in 2008 was  3200 units, what was the production in 2011 ?
1) 5450 units 2) 5400 units 3) 5500 units 4) 5560 units 5) None of these

2. In production of HCL in 2012 was 11500  units, find production of HCL in 2010 ?
1) 7560 units 2) 7700 units 3) 7900 units 4) 8000 units 5) None of these

3. What is the percentage increase in percentage increased of the production of E-ways in 2010 from the previous year ? (Approximately)

1) 60 % 2) 70 % 3) 83 % 4) 80 % 5) None of these

4. If production of Zensar in 2009 was 7100 units, find the production of HCL in same year ?
1) 6700 2) 1500 3) 1420 4) Can't be determined 5) None of these

5. The Average percentage increase in production was maximum of which companies ?
1) TCS 2) E–ways 3) Both 1 and 2 4) HCL 5) None of these

6. If production of Zensar and TCS in 2007 was 12600 units and 14400 units respectively, find total production of Zensar in 2008 and TCS in 2008 ?
1) 41320 2) 41220 3) 41420 4) 45220 5) None of these

7. If total production of HCL and Wipro in 2008 was 4100 units, what was the individual production by companies ?
1) 71500 2) 70200 3) Can't be determine 4) 71600 5) None of these

8. What is the difference of production by HCL in 2008 and 2009 ?
1) 32364 2) 31264 3) 31364 4) Data Inadequate 5) None of these

9. After distributing the sweets equally among 25 children, 5 sweets remain. Had the number of children been 29 then 20 sweets would have been left after equally distributing. What was the total number of sweets ?
1) 425 2) 435 3) 455 4) 445 5) None of these

Directions (Q. 10): Read the following table carefully and answer the questions that follow :
Number of Candidates who applied in 4 disciplines in different years :

image

10. What is approximately the average number of selected candidates in group I in Science discipline in all the years together?`
1) 780 2) 880 3) 680 4) 750 5) None of these

 

Answers :-

 

image

4.4; We can’t find HCL production with other companies data.

5.3

image

7.4;
8.4; Since here percentage is given, it is not a actual data.
9.3; Go through option, it will be easy to you.

image

English Language Quiz 35 for IBPS PO

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Direction (1-10) : In the following passage, some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks wit h appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningfully :
When I think of a woman who 41her own life to rescue  42people, or of a woman who endures persecution because she refuses to participate in injustice, or of a woman who permits herself to be 43and calumniated rather than 44a secret with which she has been entrusted, i feel a liking for this woman, i envy her , i would like to act in the same way. Perhaps i am unable to do so — under the same circumstances i would have  45. Those who lead a bad life do not fail to admire virtue, and sometimes they are the most exacting as to the virtue of others. For all that, i admire this woman; i think that she is a good woman, a righteous woman. At this point i have grasped the notion of the moral good.
If woman actions were 46events of nature, resulting from the interaction of the  47of causes at work in the world, there would be only the universe of nature there would be no ethical universe, no universe of morality. But woman actions are introduced into the world as the result of a free determination, as something which depends on an in iterative  48to the casual connections at play in the whole world, and taken by another whole which is my self, my own person, in such a way that I am responsible for it. I myself am the author of my action, be it good or bad.
I realise woman is an animal 49with reason, the form which is essentially required by her nature for her actions to possess fullness of being is the form of reason. A woman action is good, purely and simply good, or morally good, when it is formed by reason, or measured according to reason. Conformity with reason, or consonance with reason, that is, 50with what causes a woman to be a woman, is what causes a woman action to be good.


1. 1) endangers 2) deserve 3) protect 4) erected 5) separate

2. 1) kidnapping 2) stunning 3) assuage 4) expert 5) perishing

3. 1) consolidating 2) overtone 3) slandered 4) malice 5) resolved

4. 1) countered 2) led 3) determining 4) betray 5) weakening

5. 1) staggered 2) yielded 3) embittered 4) whipped 5)  opposed

6. 1) mere 2) furious 3) crucial 4) desperate 5) pushback

7. 1) precedent 2) tenor 3) desist 4) cartel 5) constellations

8. 1) alleging 2) substantial 3) perpetrated 4) irreducible 5) imperative

9. 1) credited 2) honoured 3) endowed 4) performed 5) deceitful

10. 1) conformity 2) interrogating 3) demonstrating 4) concerning 5) conducting

 

Answers :-

 

1.  1

2.  5

3.  3

4.  4

5.  2

6.  1

7.  5

8.  4

9.  3

10.  1

SSC CHSL Online Test (Online Exam)

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Dear SSC CHSL Aspirants, SSC Going to Conduct  CHSL Exam in Online Mode (Online Test/Online Exam) , Its Official Complete Details Will be Out Soon

What Shot Notice On Online Mode Change :

COMBINED HIGHER SECONDARY LEVEL EXAMINATION- 2016

The Notice of the abovementioned exam was scheduled to be published on 2nd July, 2016. However, the Commission proposes to conduct the exam in the Computer Based Examination Mode, for which modalities are being finalised. Immediately after completion of the necessary formalities the Commission would upload the Notice on the Website of the Commission as well as its Regional Offices.

SSC CHSL Online Exam Test -computer

Read Here Official Notification

English Language Quiz 34 for IBPS PO

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Direction (1-5)each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose
the set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

1. Etiquette means respect for others by your actions. by holding open a door for someone, by allowing someone to speak
without __________, by phoning ________ before visiting are all examples of it.
1) frenzied, respond 2) clashes, comforting 3) sporting, tolerate 4) interrupting, ahead 5) riding, exclusively

2. My friends who find their _________ to my work do so because they’re the _____and they’re struggling with their lack
of strategy, knowledge and feelings of love.
1) way, distance 2) campaign, mobilisation 3) prospects, promised
4) apparatuses, rankled 5) mining, key factors

3. ________ the years, however, differences among political parties have generated the most _____ and the most violent
rivalries.
1) bring, block 2) considering, worsening 3) over, prolonged
4) chunk, intact 5) unsure, emerged

4. So many of my illusory goals, so many of the things i think i want, _____ out to be the _____ behind which my real desires
hide; they are symbols for the actual values and qualities for which i hunger.
1) strategy, raised 2) set, global need 3) atrocities, malice
4) abominate, aggrieved 5)  turn, masks

5. Some of the best remember able memory comes in those moments when the wood is newly __________ and i lean against
the fresh _________ and watch the snow fall in silence.
1) appear, cease 2) chopped, woodpile 3) dissemination, information
4) stunning, target 5) experts, issue

Direction (6 – 10) : In each of the following questions four words given, of which two words are most nearly the same
or opposite in meaning. Find the two words which are most nearly the same or opposite in meaning and indicate the number
of the correct letter combination :

6. A) Vehement B) Monstrous C) Modern D) Passionate
1) A – C 2) C – B 3) D – A 4) B – D 5) B – A

7. A) Apathetic B) Mammoth C) Miniscule D) Primitive
1) B – C 2) D – A 3) C – A 4) B – D 5) A – B

8. A) Contempt B) Derision C) Overlords D) Feudal
1) B – D 2) B – A 3) C – D 4) D – A 5) C – B

9. A) Fervent B) Commendation C) Incumbent D) Unnecessary
1) B – D 2) C – A 3) A – B 4) C – B 5) D – C

 

10. A)Subvert B) Behemoth C) Rebel D) Earnest
1) D – B 2) C – A 3) B – C 4) B – A 5) A – D

 

Answers :-

 

1.4

2.1

3.3

4.  5

5.2

6.3

7.1


8.2

9.5

10.  2

UBI (United Bank of India) PO Call Letter 2016

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Recruitment of Probationary Officer through 1 year Post Graduate Diploma in Banking & Finance 
download Information Handout for Online Examination
download Scribe Declaration Form
download Call Letter for Online Examination
United Bank of India invites online applications from qualified graduates who will be appointed as Probationary Officer in JMG Scale I after successful completion of one year Post Graduate Diploma in Banking & Finance course in tie-up with NIIT-IFBI, a pioneer academic & training institution.
Starting date of Online Registration : 28.06.2016
Closing date of Online Registration : 12.07.2016

So Eligible Candidates Check & Download to Call Letter Now Available from the Official website of United Bank of India or Check the link given below.

Commencement of Call letter Download : 26 - 07 - 2016

Closure of Call letter Download : 07 - 08 – 2016

Check here :-  Download to PO Call Letter

All The Best.

A.P.Mahesh Co-operative Urban Bank Ltd Recruitment Notification 2016-17

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A.P.Mahesh Co-operative Urban Bank Ltd., a leading Multi State Scheduled Co-op.Bank in South India, having a total business turnover of Rs.2900 crores and with a net work of 42 Branches, invites applications from candidates meeting the eligibility criteria for the following positions.

  • GENERAL MANAGER
  • ASST.GENERAL MANAGERS
  • BR.MANAGERS/DEV.MANAGERS
  • DY.GENERAL MANAGERS
  • SENIOR MANAGERS/HODS
  • CONCURRENT AUDITORS

Pay Package: Commensurate with the Qualification & Experience of the candidate.

APPLY IN 15 DAYS

For details visit our website: www.apmaheshbank.com  under Career page

Hyderabad                                                                               

Date:22.07.2016                                                                  

Eligibility Criteria for the various positions:             22.07.2016

General Manager:

Candidate should possess excellent Management/ Professional/ Administrative skills and experience of working at Corporate/ Zonal/Regional levels. They should be well versed with the latest trends/technology in banking. Candidate must have proven track record of excellent performance, with dynamic leadership capacities, and expertise in the Banking field.

Candidates with, Post Graduation, MBA, CFA, ICWA/C.S. CAIIB will be given preference over others. 

He/She should possess at least 3 years experience in Scale V/VI and above with Public Sector Banks or in corresponding grades, with other Banks.

Age: Below 55 years.

Dy.General Managers/Asst.General Managers:

Finance/ Accounts & Treasury/Credit/Information & Technology/ Law /Planning & Development/Human Resources/Audit & Inspection/Recovery/Marketing:

Candidate should have worked at Corporate/Zonal/Regional levels either as Chief Manager(Scale IV) and Asst.General Mangaers(Scale V) in Public Sector Banks or in corresponding grades with other Banks.

They should have been acquainted with latest trends in Banking and have exposure to latest technology/changes in Banking industry and should possess requisite expertise and abilities to handle the work assigned to them.

Candidate with, Post Graduation, MBA, C.A., Cost and Financial Analysis, CAIIB will be given preference over others.

They should have proven track record of Managing efficiently as head of the section/area of operation/ fields/specialization stated above for a minimum period of 3 years.

Age: Below 55 years.

Senior Managers/Head Of Depatments:

Finance Accounts & Treasury/Credit/Insurance/Estate/Information & Technology/ Law/ Recovery/ Marketing/ Planning & Development/ Human Resource/Audit & Inspection:

Candidate should be experienced and should have worked as Manager (Scale II) or Senior Manager (Scale III) at least for 3 years at Branch level/Regional level/Zonal level and Corporate Office level in Public Sector Banks or in corresponding grades, in other banks. They should have good knowledge of banking operations and should be acquainted with latest trends in banking and should be thorough in compliance with the statutory and other regulatory requirements relevant to banking and should be able to efficiently handle the department assigned to them.

Candidates with, Post Graduation/CA/MBA, CAIIB will be given preference over others.

Age: Below 50 years.

Branch Managers/Development Managers:

  1. Branch Manager-Operations (Local & Outstation)

Candidate should be graduate with excellent track record of achieving the Business Targets and internal administration of the Branch successfully i.e., entire operations of the branch, including Customer Service. He/She should have exhaustive knowledge of Banking Operations particularly in Credit Management. He/She should be well versed with the latest trends/technology in entire banking operations and should have worked as Branch Manager for a minimum period of 3 years in any Bank.

  1. Development Manager – Business Development (Loacal & Outstation):

Candidate should be graduate with excellent track record in the Sales/Marketing field. The candidate should have good zeal for achieving the Business Targets, should possess the qualities of Business Development/Sales/Marketing Executive rendering excellent customer service with innovative ideas and should have worked in the relevant field i.e., as Development Manager for a minimum period of 3 years in any Bank.

Candidate with Post Graduation/MBA/CAIIB will be given preference over others.

Note: Candidates may give their preferred location of work keeping in mind our branch Net Work.

Age: Below 40 years.

Concurrent Auditors

Candidate should be graduate with excellent academic track record. He/She should have exhaustive knowledge of Banking Operations and be well-versed with latest trends/technology in Banking operations. He/she should have knowledge and experience of Audit & Inspection of Branches including Concurrent Audit, Annual Inspection.

Candidate with Post Graduation/MBA/CAIIB will be given preference over others.

Age: Below 55 years.

Apart from the above Recently Retired/Resigned/VRS employees in Middle Management/Senior Management Grade from any Bank who possess the requisite experience in Audit & Inspection can also apply.

General:

CTC for above positions is commensurate with Age, Qualifications, Experience and Proficiency in the respective position. Age relaxation will be considered in deserving cases.

Apply in strict confidence, giving full details of present job and past experience and Pay/CTC drawn and expected, on or before 11th August 2016 clearly indicating the position applied for and mail/courier to.

Email:[email protected]

The General Manager

A.P.Mahesh Co.op.Urban Bank Ltd.,

(Multi State Scheduled Bank)

5-3-989,Sherza Estate,N.S.Road,Osmangunj.

Hyderabad – 500 095(A.P.)

English Language Quiz 33 for IBPS PO

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Directions (Q. 1– 5): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there  is 'No error', the answer is 5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, If any).

1. 1) We had recently organised several round table discussions / 2) to understand the needs and requirements / 3) of these
specific stakeholders, / 4) to be dovetailed with the implementation of the new policy initiatives. /5) No error

2. 1) This decision will weave / 2) a whole ecosystem of innovation / 3) and a new electronic products / 4) in the country. / 5) No error

3. 1) I would urge all states / 2) to come forward / 3) and made / 4) the most of this opportunity. / 5) No error

4. 1) House we used to call our home / 2) has suddenly become an empty shall, / 3) as if a gust of wind has sucked everything out of it / 4) so that there is nothing left but absence. / 5) No error

5. 1) Could it be a cause / 2) for the many forms of that most strange and most elusive of emotions, / 3) the love between dogs and people who share a home / 4) is perhaps the most unmotivated love of all ? /5) No error

Directions (Q. 6 –10):  Rearrange the following seven sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E), (F) and (G) in the proper sequence
to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below.
A)He must meet unusual employee and make them come closer to everyone.
B)Growing up as a young professional, Byom was always fascinated by leadership.
C)How the each employee takes critical decisions; what are the drivers, the struggles, the insecurities.
D)Beyond the command-and-control relationship, the average employee in his company doesn’t know how a leader’s mind works;
E)But he also realized that most leaders, particularly inside his company, feel very remote from the average employee.
F)Byom told himself, someday, he must attempt it.
G)He felt that there is a lot of valuable stuff in there; harvesting that inner-self could hugely benefit countless employees both inside and outside the company.

6. Which of the following would be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
1) G 2) D 3) E 4) A 5) C

7. Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?

1) C 2) F 3) D 4) A 5) B

8. Which of the following would be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
1) G 2) A 3) E 4) B 5) D

9. Which of the following would be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
1) C 2) E 3) D 4) F 5) G

10. Which of the following would be the SIXTH sentence after rearrangement ?
1) G 2) A 3) F 4) B 5) E

 

Answers :-

 

1.  4;  ‘dovtailed’  is  wrong  word  the  correct  spelling  is ‘dovetailed’.
2.  3; Omit ‘a’
3.  3; Replace ‘made’ by ‘make’.
4.  1; ‘The’ before ‘house’.
5.  2; Replace ‘for’ with ‘of’.
(6 –10) B E D C G F A
6.  2

7.  5

8.  1

9.  2

10.  3

English Language Quiz 32 for IBPS PO

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Direction (Q. 1 - 10) :  Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Human rights are a modern concept, yet they are an integral part of human history. Finding examples of human rights abuses is easy throughout history, from the ancient world to the modern one. Human rights do not have to be bought, earned or inherited; they belong to people simply because they are human. Human rights are inherent to each individual.  Human rights are the same for all human beings regardless of race, sex, religion, political or other opinion, national or social origin. We are all born free and equal in dignity and rights— human rights are universal.   Human rights cannot be taken away; no one has the right to deprive another person of them for any reason. People still have human rights even when the laws of their countries do not recognise them, or when they violate them - for example, when slavery is practiced, slaves still have rights even though these rights are being violated. Human rights are inalienable.  To live in dignity, all human beings are entitled to freedom, security and decent standards of living concurrently. Human rights are indivisible.   Rights can be put into three categories:   1)Civil and political rights (also called first generation rights). 2) Economic and social rights (also called second generation rights). 3) Environmental, cultural and developmental rights (also called third generation rights). These include the rights to live in an environment that is clean and protected from destruction, and rights to cultural, political and economic  development.  When  we  say  that  each  person  has  human  rights,  we  are  also  saying  that  each  person  has responsibilities to respect the human rights of others.  Human rights should be adopted and applied by all people and nations always. However, to adopt and apply human rights we need to be aware of, and own the basic principles of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights. To do this we need to have a constant dialogue. The dialogue is necessary because the way human rights issues and abuses arise is ever changing. For example, the rise of the Internet has meant that the issues of freedoms, especially freedom of speech, are being re-defined.
Tolerance is a key factor to freedom of speech and therefore human rights.   It is constant dialogue that allows us to be aware of the issues and abuses. It is constant dialogue that allows us to formulate and implement actions. It is constant dialogue which allows us always to promote and protect human rights.There is an independent and powerful judicial system for protection of rights of the citizens. Hence, right conditions and an adequate set-up were created for peaceful, lawful and progressive existence for everyone with little or no scope for violation on human rights. Thus, we have a strong tradition and constitutional backing to ensure maintenance of human rights. But this does not mean that there have been no  laxities in the system. There is no denial of the fact that there have been  blatant violations of human rights and some parts at some period of time like Delhi in 1984, and J&K in 1980's and 1990's.It is pertinent to mention here that different communities have been at the receiving end of such violations in different times and areas, with each community  proclaiming to be the worst sufferers. But we can call these incidents laxities not failures for the simple reason that they have been  sporadic incidents not a State provoked orders of genocide like those of the Jews in Nazi Germany. By and large people themselves have been responsible for creating havoc on target groups. State has always stood for victims and reinforcement of law and order.

 

1. Which of the following right does not come under Human Rights ?
1) Right to freedom from slavery.
2) Freedom of thought, conscience and religion.
3) Every person has afforded conditions under which they are able to meet their basic needs.
4) Individuals freedom from infringement by governments and private organizations, and ensure one's  ability to participate in the civil and political life of the state without discrimination.
5) None of these

2. The example of Delhi in 1984's and Jammu and Kashmir in 1980's and 1990's to emphasize point that –
1) Riots and terrorism are unable to protect the human rights.
2) Human beings are the sufferers of massacre.
3) All the international organisations were involved in these riots.
4) All of the above
5) None of these

3. How do Human Rights contribute to the development of citizens ?
1) These rights represent entitlements of the individual.
2) Everyone has secure and safe life.
3) The political climate, the Global Economic, Financial and The Environmental context and the network together create the better life conditions that can favour personal development.
4) Human Rights are increased as per individual demand.
5) None of these

4. Which of the followings shows a relationship between Human Rights and economic growth ?
1) Human Rights lead the overall development for country, society and for man.
2) Human Rights aim at the improvement of the entire economy and of all individuals on the basis of  their active, free and
meaningful participation in development.
3) Human Rights are commonly understood as inalienable Fundamental Rights.
4) Both 1 and 2

5) None of these

5. What does the phrase 'By and large 'mean as used in the passage ?
1) Usually 2) Hardly 3) Eccentric 4) Unconventional 5) None of these

Direction (Q. 16 – 17) :  Choose the word which is most SIMILAR in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.


6. Laxities
1) Impulsive 2) Flashy 3) Plunder 4) Decimation 5)  Looseness

7. Proclaiming
1) Profess 2) Concealed 3) Indulgence 4) Wreck 5) Blast

Direction (Q.18 –20) : Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the  passage.

8. Blatant
1) Overt 2) Bold 3) Hidden 4) Outright 5) Plain

9. Havoc
1) Rare 2) Chaos 3) Indifference 4) Harmony 5) Usual

10. Sporadic
1) Mark 2) Peace 3) Frequent 4) Heedless 5) Catch

 

Answers :-

 

1.5

2.1

3.3

4.4

5.1

6.5

7.1

8.3


9. 4

10.3